3.8 of 46 Ratings
Technique guides are not considered high yield topics for orthopaedic standardized exams including ABOS, EBOT and RC.
A 65-year-old man presents with chronic right shoulder pain and crepitus. On physical exam his rotator cuff strength is 5/5. He has pain with both passive and active range of motion. Radiographs are shown in Figures A and B. An MRI is performed and shows no evidence of a rotator cuff tear. When comparing TSA versus hemiarthroplasty as a treatment option in this patient, hemiarthroplasty results in which of the following?
Improved pain relief
Increased rate of revision surgery
Increased blood loss
Increased postoperative instability
Increased postoperative infection rates
Select Answer to see Preferred Response
A 61-year-old laborer presents for total shoulder arthroplasty for primary osteoarthritis. What is his chance of having a concomitant full-thickness supraspinatus tear?
less than 10%
10 to 20%
20 to 30%
30 to 40%
greater than 40%
In comparison to patients with osteoarthritis, patient with inflammatory arthritis undergoing shoulder arthroplasty are more likely to have?
Large inferior humeral osteophyte
Medialization of the glenohumeral joint line
Posterior humeral head subluxation
Posterior glenoid wear
A 72-year-old man reports progressive pain and restriction of motion in his left shoulder. His active and passive motion are restricted to 90 degrees of forward elevation and neutral external rotation. Based on his radiograph shown in Figure A and physical exam, where is glenoid wear most likely to exist?